NEET Full Syllabus Mock Test 01

📋 Test Information

• Exam: NEET Full Syllabus Mock Test
• Duration: 3 hours (180 minutes)
• Total Questions: 180
• Total Marks: 720
• Sections: Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany + Zoology)

🎯 Test Structure

Physics (45 Questions × 4 Marks = 180 Marks)

• Class 11 Topics: 22 questions
• Class 12 Topics: 23 questions
• Mechanics: 12 questions
• Thermodynamics: 6 questions
• Electromagnetism: 15 questions
• Optics & Modern Physics: 12 questions

Chemistry (45 Questions × 4 Marks = 180 Marks)

• Class 11 Topics: 22 questions
• Class 12 Topics: 23 questions
• Physical Chemistry: 16 questions
• Inorganic Chemistry: 14 questions
• Organic Chemistry: 15 questions

Biology (90 Questions × 4 Marks = 360 Marks)

• Botany: 45 questions
• Zoology: 45 questions
• Class 11 Topics: 44 questions
• Class 12 Topics: 46 questions

📝 PHYSICS SECTION (45 Questions)

Class 11 Topics (22 Questions)

Mechanics (12 Questions)

Q1. A particle moves in a circle of radius r with constant speed v. The angular velocity is: (a) v/r (b) vr (c) r/v (d) v²/r

Q2. A force of 10 N acts on a mass of 2 kg. The acceleration produced is: (a) 5 m/s² (b) 20 m/s² (c) 10 m/s² (d) 2 m/s²

Q3. The momentum of a particle with mass m and velocity v is: (a) mv (b) mv² (c) m/v (d) v/m

Q4. Work done by a force is given by: (a) F × d (b) F · d (c) F/d (d) F + d

Q5. The kinetic energy of a mass m moving with velocity v is: (a) mv (b) mv² (c) (1/2)mv² (d) 2mv²

Q6. The escape velocity from Earth’s surface is approximately: (a) 5 km/s (b) 11 km/s (c) 20 km/s (d) 30 km/s

Q7. A satellite orbiting Earth has orbital velocity: (a) √(GM/r) (b) GM/r (c) GM/r² (d) √(GM/r²)

Q8. The period of a simple pendulum is: (a) 2π√(L/g) (b) 2π√(g/L) (c) √(L/g) (d) √(g/L)

Q9. Young’s modulus has units of: (a) N/m (b) N/m² (c) N·m (d) N·m²

Q10. The pressure exerted by a liquid column of height h is: (a) ρgh (b) ρg/h (c) h/ρg (d) gh/ρ

Q11. The coefficient of viscosity has units of: (a) N·s/m² (b) N·m/s² (c) N/m²·s (d) N·s²/m

Q12. The terminal velocity of a sphere falling through liquid is: (a) 2r²g(ρ-σ)/9η (b) 2r²g(σ-ρ)/9η (c) r²g(ρ-σ)/9η (d) r²g(σ-ρ)/9η

Thermodynamics (6 Questions)

Q13. The first law of thermodynamics is: (a) ΔU = Q + W (b) ΔU = Q - W (c) Q = ΔU + W (d) W = Q + ΔU

Q14. The specific heat capacity of water is: (a) 1 cal/g·°C (b) 4.2 J/g·°C (c) 4200 J/kg·K (d) All of the above

Q15. The latent heat of vaporization of water is: (a) 80 cal/g (b) 540 cal/g (c) 336 J/g (d) 2260 J/g

Q16. The efficiency of Carnot engine is: (a) 1 - T₂/T₁ (b) 1 - T₁/T₂ (c) T₂/T₁ (d) T₁/T₂

Q17. The rms speed of gas molecules is proportional to: (a) √T (b) T (c) T² (d) 1/√T

Q18. Absolute zero temperature is: (a) -273°C (b) 0 K (c) -273 K (d) 0°C

Waves (4 Questions)

Q19. The wave equation is: (a) v = fλ (b) v = f/λ (c) v = λ/f (d) v = f²λ

Q20. The frequency of a wave is related to its time period as: (a) f = 1/T (b) f = T (c) f = 2π/T (d) f = T/2π

Q21. The intensity of sound is proportional to: (a) Amplitude (b) Amplitude² (c) √Amplitude (d) 1/Amplitude

Q22. The Doppler effect occurs when: (a) Source moves (b) Observer moves (c) Both move (d) Any of the above

Class 12 Topics (23 Questions)

Electrostatics (8 Questions)

Q23. Coulomb’s law is: (a) F = kq₁q₂/r² (b) F = kq₁q₂/r (c) F = kq₁q₂r² (d) F = kr²/q₁q₂

Q24. The electric field due to point charge q at distance r is: (a) kq/r² (b) kq/r (c) kr²/q (d) kr/q²

Q25. Electric potential is: (a) Scalar quantity (b) Vector quantity (c) Neither scalar nor vector (d) Both scalar and vector

Q26. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is: (a) ε₀A/d (b) ε₀d/A (c) Ad/ε₀ (d) ε₀Ad

Q27. The unit of capacitance is: (a) Coulomb (b) Volt (c) Farad (d) Joule

Q28. Energy stored in capacitor is: (a) (1/2)CV² (b) CV² (c) (1/2)QV (d) QV

Q29. Dielectric constant is: (a) K = C/C₀ (b) K = C₀/C (c) K = C × C₀ (d) K = C + C₀

Q30. Electric dipole moment is: (a) q × d (b) q/d (c) d/q (d) q + d

Current Electricity (7 Questions)

Q31. Ohm’s law is: (a) V = IR (b) I = VR (c) R = VI (d) V = I/R

Q32. The unit of resistance is: (a) Ampere (b) Volt (c) Ohm (d) Watt

Q33. Resistivity has units of: (a) Ohm·m (b) Ohm/m (c) m/Ohm (d) Ohm²·m

Q34. Kirchhoff’s first law is based on: (a) Conservation of charge (b) Conservation of energy (c) Conservation of momentum (d) Conservation of mass

Q35. The effective resistance of two resistors in parallel is: (a) R₁ + R₂ (b) R₁R₂/(R₁ + R₂) (c) (R₁ + R₂)/R₁R₂ (d) 1/(R₁ + R₂)

Q36. The power dissipated in resistor is: (a) I²R (b) V²/R (c) VI (d) All of the above

Q37. The drift velocity of electrons is: (a) v_d = I/neA (b) v_d = neA/I (c) v_d = I/nA (d) v_d = nA/I

Magnetism (4 Questions)

Q38. The magnetic field due to straight wire carrying current I is: (a) B = μ₀I/2πr (b) B = μ₀I/4πr (c) B = μ₀I/r (d) B = μ₀I²/2πr

Q39. The force on charge q moving with velocity v in magnetic field B is: (a) F = qvB (b) F = qv × B (c) F = qB/v (d) F = q/Bv

Q40. The unit of magnetic field is: (a) Tesla (b) Gauss (c) Weber (d) Ampere

Q41. A cyclotron uses: (a) Electric field only (b) Magnetic field only (c) Both electric and magnetic fields (d) Neither electric nor magnetic field

Electromagnetic Induction (4 Questions)

Q42. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction is: (a) ε = -dΦ/dt (b) ε = dΦ/dt (c) ε = -Φ/t (d) ε = Φ/t

Q43. Lenz’s law is based on: (a) Conservation of charge (b) Conservation of energy (c) Conservation of momentum (d) Conservation of mass

Q44. The unit of magnetic flux is: (a) Weber (b) Tesla (c) Henry (d) Farad

Q45. Self inductance is measured in: (a) Henry (b) Weber (c) Tesla (d) Farad

📝 CHEMISTRY SECTION (45 Questions)

Physical Chemistry (16 Questions)

Q46. The atomic number of carbon is: (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 8

Q47. The number of valence electrons in oxygen is: (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

Q48. The chemical formula of water is: (a) HO (b) H₂O (c) H₂O₂ (d) H₃O

Q49. The molecular weight of NaCl is: (a) 23 (b) 35.5 (c) 58.5 (d) 40

Q50. One mole of any substance contains: (a) 6.023 × 10²² particles (b) 6.023 × 10²³ particles (c) 6.023 × 10²⁴ particles (d) 6.023 × 10²¹ particles

Q51. The pH of neutral solution is: (a) 0 (b) 7 (c) 14 (d) 1

Q52. The concentration of 0.1 M HCl solution in mol/L is: (a) 0.1 (b) 0.01 (c) 1 (d) 10

Q53. The rate constant of first order reaction has unit: (a) s⁻¹ (b) mol/L·s (c) L/mol·s (d) s

Q54. The activation energy of reaction is: (a) Minimum energy required (b) Energy released (c) Heat of reaction (d) Entropy change

Q55. The enthalpy of formation of elements in standard state is: (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) 100

Q56. The Gibbs free energy change determines: (a) Reaction rate (b) Reaction spontaneity (c) Equilibrium constant (d) Activation energy

Q57. The equilibrium constant expression for reaction aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD is: (a) K = [C]ᶜ[D]ᵈ/[A]ᵃ[B]ᵇ (b) K = [A]ᵃ[B]ᵇ/[C]ᶜ[D]ᵈ (c) K = [A][B]/[C][D] (d) K = [C][D]/[A][B]

Q58. Le Chatelier’s principle states: (a) System opposes change (b) System favors change (c) System remains unchanged (d) System doubles the change

Q59. The boiling point of water at 1 atm pressure is: (a) 0°C (b) 100°C (c) 273 K (d) 373 K

Q60. The osmotic pressure of solution depends on: (a) Concentration (b) Temperature (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q61. The conductivity of solution is measured in: (a) S/cm (b) S·cm (c) S⁻¹·cm⁻¹ (d) S⁻¹·cm

Inorganic Chemistry (14 Questions)

Q62. The electronic configuration of sodium is: (a) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹ (b) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s² (c) 1s²2s²2p⁵ (d) 1s²2s²2p⁶

Q63. The period number of element with atomic number 20 is: (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Q64. The group number of chlorine in periodic table is: (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18

Q65. The oxidation state of oxygen in H₂O is: (a) -2 (b) -1 (c) 0 (d) +2

Q66. The hybridization of carbon in methane is: (a) sp (b) sp² (c) sp³ (d) d²sp³

Q67. The shape of BF₃ molecule is: (a) Linear (b) Trigonal planar (c) Tetrahedral (d) Trigonal pyramidal

Q68. The bond angle in H₂O molecule is: (a) 104.5° (b) 109.5° (c) 120° (d) 180°

Q69. The type of bond in NaCl is: (a) Covalent (b) Ionic (c) Metallic (d) Hydrogen

Q70. The coordination number of NaCl crystal is: (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12

Q71. The crystal structure of NaCl is: (a) Simple cubic (b) BCC (c) FCC (d) HCP

Q72. The magnetic moment of Fe³⁺ is: (a) 0 BM (b) 1.73 BM (c) 4.9 BM (d) 5.92 BM

Q73. The name of [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ is: (a) Hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride (b) Cobalt hexammine chloride (c) Hexamminecobalt(III) trichloride (d) Cobalt(III) hexammine chloride

Q74. The ligand in [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is: (a) Neutral (b) Weak field (c) Strong field (d) Monodentate

Q75. The color of CuSO₄ solution is: (a) Colorless (b) Blue (c) Green (d) Red

Organic Chemistry (15 Questions)

Q76. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₃ is: (a) Propane (b) Methane (c) Ethane (d) Butane

Q77. The molecular formula of butane is: (a) C₃H₈ (b) C₄H₁₀ (c) C₅H₁₂ (d) C₂H₆

Q78. The type of isomerism in C₄H₁₀ is: (a) Chain isomerism (b) Position isomerism (c) Functional isomerism (d) Metamerism

Q79. The hybridization of carbon in ethyne is: (a) sp (b) sp² (c) sp³ (d) d²sp³

Q80. The reaction of ethene with bromine gives: (a) 1,2-dibromoethane (b) 1-bromoethane (c) 2-bromoethane (d) Ethane

Q81. the catalyst used in hydrogenation of alkenes is: (a) Ni (b) Pt (c) Pd (d) All of the above

Q82. The product obtained when ethanol reacts with Na metal is: (a) Ethyl ethanoate (b) Ethyl chloride (c) Sodium ethoxide (d) Ethene

Q83. The reducing agent used to convert aldehyde to alcohol is: (a) NaBH₄ (b) KMnO₄ (c) K₂Cr₂O₇ (d) H₂SO₄

Q84. The carboxylic acid present in vinegar is: (a) Formic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Propionic acid (d) Butyric acid

Q85. The ester formed from acetic acid and ethanol is: (a) Ethyl acetate (b) Methyl acetate (c) Propyl acetate (d) Butyl acetate

Q86. The amine present in tea is: (a) Aniline (b) Pyridine (c) Caffeine (d) Nicotine

Q87. The polymer formed by polymerization of ethene is: (a) Polyethene (b) Polystyrene (c) PVC (d) Teflon

Q88. The monomer of natural rubber is: (a) Isoprene (b) Butadiene (c) Styrene (d) Vinyl chloride

Q89. The biodegradable polymer is: (a) Polythene (b) Polystyrene (c) Polyhydroxybutyrate (d) PVC

Q90. The drug used as analgesic is: (a) Aspirin (b) Paracetamol (c) Morphine (d) All of the above

📝 BIOLOGY SECTION (90 Questions)

Botany (45 Questions)

Q91. The cell theory was proposed by: (a) Schleiden and Schwann (b) Robert Hooke (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Rudolf Virchow

Q92. The smallest cell organelle is: (a) Ribosome (b) Mitochondria (c) Chloroplast (d) Nucleus

Q93. The power house of cell is: (a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplast (c) Ribosome (d) Nucleus

Q94. The site of protein synthesis is: (a) Ribosome (b) Mitochondria (c) Chloroplast (d) Nucleus

Q95. The genetic material is: (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Protein (d) Lipid

Q96. Mitosis results in: (a) 2 diploid cells (b) 4 haploid cells (c) 2 haploid cells (d) 4 diploid cells

Q97. Meiosis occurs in: (a) Somatic cells (b) Germ cells (c) Meristematic cells (d) Parenchyma cells

Q98. Photosynthesis occurs in: (a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria (c) Ribosome (d) Nucleus

Q99. The pigment responsible for photosynthesis is: (a) Chlorophyll (b) Carotenoid (c) Xanthophyll (d) Anthocyanin

Q100. The gas evolved during photosynthesis is: (a) O₂ (b) CO₂ (c) N₂ (d) H₂

Q101. The respiratory substrate is: (a) Glucose (b) Protein (c) Fat (d) All of the above

Q102. The end product of glycolysis is: (a) Pyruvate (b) Lactate (c) Ethanol (d) CO₂

Q103. The tissue responsible for transport of water is: (a) Xylem (b) Phloem (c) Parenchyma (d) Collenchyma

Q104. The tissue responsible for transport of food is: (a) Xylem (b) Phloem (c) Parenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma

Q105. The root hair arises from: (a) Epidermis (b) Cortex (c) Endodermis (d) Pericycle

Q106. The tissue present at the tip of root is: (a) Meristem (b) Parenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma

Q107. Secondary growth occurs in: (a) Herbs (b) Shrubs (c) Trees (d) All of the above

Q108. The plant hormone responsible for cell division is: (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Gibberellin (d) Abscisic acid

Q109. The plant hormone responsible for fruit ripening is: (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic acid

Q110. The enzyme that digests cellulose is: (a) Cellulase (b) Amylase (c) Protease (d) Lipase

Q111. The nitrogen fixing bacteria present in legume root nodules is: (a) Azotobacter (b) Rhizobium (c) Nitrosomonas (d) Nitrobacter

Q112. The first TCA cycle intermediate is: (a) Citric acid (b) α-ketoglutaric acid (c) Succinic acid (d) Malic acid

Q113. the enzyme that converts sucrose to glucose and fructose is: (a) Invertase (b) Zymase (c) Diastase (d) Maltase

Q114. The vitamin present in citrus fruits is: (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D

Q115. The disease caused by deficiency of vitamin C is: (a) Beriberi (b) Scurvy (c) Night blindness (d) Rickets

Q116. The plant hormone that inhibits growth is: (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Abscisic acid (d) Gibberellin

Q117. The part of flower that becomes fruit is: (a) Ovary (b) Ovule (c) Petal (d) Sepal

Q118. The part of flower that becomes seed is: (a) Ovary (b) Ovule (c) Petal (d) Sepal

Q119. The process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma is called: (a) Fertilization (b) Pollination (c) Germination (d) Ovulation

Q120. The male gametophyte of flowering plant is: (a) Pollen grain (b) Ovule (c) Embryo sac (d) Endosperm

Q121. The female gametophyte of flowering plant is: (a) Pollen grain (b) Ovule (c) Embryo sac (d) Endosperm

Q122. The process of fusion of male and female gametes is called: (a) Fertilization (b) Pollination (c) Germination (d) Ovulation

Q123. The fruit developed from ovary is called: (a) True fruit (b) False fruit (c) Parthenocarpic fruit (d) Aggregate fruit

Q124. The fruit developed from thalamus is called: (a) True fruit (b) False fruit (c) Parthenocarpic fruit (d) Aggregate fruit

Q125. The seed developed without fertilization is called: (a) True seed (b) False seed (c) Parthenocarpic seed (d) Apomictic seed

Q126. The process of seed germination requires: (a) Water (b) Oxygen (c) Temperature (d) All of the above

Q127. The enzyme present in saliva is: (a) Ptyalin (b) Pepsin (c) Trypsin (d) Lipase

Q128. The enzyme present in stomach is: (a) Ptyalin (b) Pepsin (c) Trypsin (d) Lipase

Q129. The enzyme present in pancreas is: (a) Ptyalin (b) Pepsin (c) Trypsin (d) Lipase

Q130. The final product of protein digestion is: (a) Amino acids (b) Glucose (c) Fatty acids (d) Glycerol

Q131. The final product of carbohydrate digestion is: (a) Amino acids (b) Glucose (c) Fatty acids (d) Glycerol

Q132. The final product of fat digestion is: (a) Amino acids (b) Glucose (c) Fatty acids and glycerol (d) None of the above

Q133. The organ that secretes bile is: (a) Liver (b) Pancreas (c) Stomach (d) Small intestine

Q134. The organ that stores bile is: (a) Liver (b) Gall bladder (c) Pancreas (d) Stomach

Q135. The pH of stomach is: (a) 1-2 (b) 6-7 (c) 8-9 (d) 10-11

Zoology (45 Questions)

Q136. The smallest unit of life is: (a) Cell (b) Tissue (c) Organ (d) Organ system

Q137. The study of tissues is called: (a) Anatomy (b) Histology (c) Physiology (d) Cytology

Q138. The tissue that connects muscle to bone is: (a) Cartilage (b) Tendon (c) Ligament (d) Areolar tissue

Q139. The tissue that connects bone to bone is: (a) Cartilage (b) Tendon (c) Ligament (d) Areolar tissue

Q140. The fluid connective tissue is: (a) Blood (b) Cartilage (c) Bone (d) Muscle

Q141. The cell that helps in blood clotting is: (a) RBC (b) WBC (c) Platelets (d) Plasma

Q142. The pigment present in RBC is: (a) Hemoglobin (b) Myoglobin (c) Cytochrome (d) Chlorophyll

Q143. The WBC that produces antibodies is: (a) Neutrophil (b) Lymphocyte (c) Monocyte (d) Eosinophil

Q144. The universal blood donor is: (a) A (b) B (c) AB (d) O

Q145. The universal blood recipient is: (a) A (b) B (c) AB (d) O

Q146. The largest artery is: (a) Pulmonary artery (b) Aorta (c) Carotid artery (d) Coronary artery

Q147. The largest vein is: (a) Pulmonary vein (b) Vena cava (c) Jugular vein (d) Hepatic vein

Q148. The normal blood pressure is: (a) 80/120 mmHg (b) 120/80 mmHg (c) 100/80 mmHg (d) 80/100 mmHg

Q149. The pacemaker of heart is: (a) SA node (b) AV node (c) Bundle of His (d) Purkinje fibers

Q150. The number of chambers in human heart is: (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Q151. The double circulation is present in: (a) Fish (b) Amphibian (c) Reptile (d) Mammals

Q152. The respiratory organ in humans is: (a) Skin (b) Gills (c) Lungs (d) Trachea

Q153. The functional unit of lung is: (a) Alveolus (b) Bronchi (c) Bronchioles (d) Trachea

Q154. The gas exchange occurs in: (a) Alveoli (b) Bronchi (c) Trachea (d) Pharynx

Q155. The volume of air inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing is: (a) Tidal volume (b) Vital capacity (c) Inspiratory reserve volume (d) Expiratory reserve volume

Q156. The organ that produces urea is: (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Lung (d) Heart

Q157. The functional unit of kidney is: (a) Nephron (b) Neuron (c) Alveolus (d) Sarcomere

Q158. The filtration occurs in: (a) Glomerulus (b) Bowman’s capsule (c) Loop of Henle (d) Collecting duct

Q159. The reabsorption occurs in: (a) Glomerulus (b) Bowman’s capsule (c) Tubules (d) Collecting duct

Q160. The hormone that regulates water balance is: (a) ADH (b) Aldosterone (c) Insulin (d) Glucagon

Q161. The endocrine gland that is called master gland is: (a) Pituitary (b) Thyroid (c) Adrenal (d) Pancreas

Q162. The hormone that regulates blood sugar level is: (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine (c) Adrenaline (d) Growth hormone

Q163. The hormone that regulates metabolism is: (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine (c) Adrenaline (d) Growth hormone

Q164. The hormone that regulates calcium metabolism is: (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine (c) Parathormone (d) Adrenaline

Q165. The male sex hormone is: (a) Testosterone (b) Estrogen (c) Progesterone (d) Relaxin

Q166. The female sex hormone is: (a) Testosterone (b) Estrogen (c) Progesterone (d) Both (b) and (c)

Q167. The male gamete is called: (a) Sperm (b) Ovum (c) Zygote (d) Embryo

Q168. The female gamete is called: (a) Sperm (b) Ovum (c) Zygote (d) Embryo

Q169. The process of sperm formation is called: (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Oogenesis (c) Fertilization (d) Cleavage

Q170. The process of ovum formation is called: (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Oogenesis (c) Fertilization (d) Cleavage

Q171. The fertilization occurs in: (a) Ovary (b) Fallopian tube (c) Uterus (d) Vagina

Q172. The implantation occurs in: (a) Ovary (b) Fallopian tube (c) Uterus (d) Vagina

Q173. The gestation period in humans is: (a) 280 days (b) 300 days (c) 320 days (d) 360 days

Q174. The placenta connects: (a) Mother to fetus (b) Fetus to mother (c) Mother to amniotic fluid (d) Fetus to amniotic fluid

Q175. The part of brain that controls balance is: (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla (d) Spinal cord

Q176. The part of brain that controls thinking is: (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla (d) Spinal cord

Q177. The part of brain that controls breathing is: (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla (d) Spinal cord

Q178. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is: (a) Neuron (b) Neuroglia (c) Axon (d) Dendrite

Q179. The covering of neuron is called: (a) Myelin sheath (b) Neurilemma (c) Node of Ranvier (d) Synapse

Q180. The gap between two neurons is called: (a) Synapse (b) Synaptic cleft (c) Axon terminal (d) Dendrite

🔑 Answer Key

Physics Answers:

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a)

Chemistry Answers:

46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (d)

Biology Answers:

91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (a) 101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (a) 111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (a) 121. (c) 122. (a) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (d) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (b) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (c) 140. (a) 141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (c) 151. (d) 152. (c) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (c) 165. (a) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (b) 169. (a) 170. (b) 171. (b) 172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (b) 176. (a) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (a) 180. (b)

📊 Performance Analysis

Score Interpretation:

• 650-720 marks: Excellent performance (Expected NEET rank: < 1000)
• 550-649 marks: Good performance (Expected NEET rank: 1000-10000)
• 450-549 marks: Average performance (Expected NEET rank: 10000-50000)
• Below 450 marks: Need improvement

Section-wise Performance:

• Biology: Should score minimum 300+ marks
• Physics and Chemistry: Combined should score 300+ marks
• Time Management: 60 minutes per section

Subject-wise Strategy:

1. Biology: Attempt first, maximum accuracy
2. Chemistry: Attempt next, focus on NCERT concepts
3. Physics: Attempt last, use formula shortcuts

💡 Test Strategy

Before Test:

1. Revise NCERT thoroughly
2. Practice diagrams for Biology
3. Memorize formulas for Physics
4. Learn chemical reactions for Chemistry

During Test:

1. Read questions carefully
2. Manage time section-wise
3. Don’t waste time on difficult questions
4. Use elimination technique

All the best for your NEET preparation! 🏥