JEE Advanced Full Syllabus Mock Test 1 - Complete Assessment

<� Test Information

• Test Type: Full Syllabus Mock Test (JEE Advanced 2024 Pattern)
• Subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
• Total Duration: 3 Hours (Paper 1) + 3 Hours (Paper 2)
• Total Questions: 108 Questions (54 each paper)
• Total Marks: 360 Marks (180 each paper)
• Pattern: JEE Advanced 2024 Format

Paper Structure

• Paper 1: 3 Hours - Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
• Paper 2: 3 Hours - Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
• Language: English
• Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT) Simulation

=� Paper 1: Structure and Instructions

Section-wise Distribution

Subject-wise Breakdown

• Physics: 30 Questions (96 Marks)
• Chemistry: 30 Questions (96 Marks)
• Mathematics: 30 Questions (96 Marks)

Time Allocation

• Total Duration: 3 Hours (180 Minutes)
• Recommended per Subject: 60 Minutes
• Section Strategy: 20 minutes per section

=� Paper 1: Physics (30 Questions � 3.2 Marks = 96 Marks)

Section I: Single Correct Answer (6 Questions � 3 = 18 Marks)

Question 1

A particle moves in a circular path of radius r with variable speed v = kt, where k is constant and t is time. The magnitude of radial acceleration at time t is:

(A) k�t�/r (B) k�t/r (C) k�t�/r� (D) k�t/r�

Question 2

A monatomic ideal gas undergoes an isothermal expansion at temperature T. If the volume doubles, the work done by the gas is:

(A) RT ln 2 (B) 2RT ln 2 (C) RT/2 ln 2 (D) 2RT

Question 3

The electric field at a point P due to an electric dipole is E. If the distance of P from the dipole center is doubled, the electric field becomes:

(A) E/8 (B) E/4 (C) E/16 (D) E/32

Question 4

A photon of wavelength 200 nm is incident on a metal surface with work function 4.2 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is:

(A) 2.0 eV (B) 4.2 eV (C) 6.2 eV (D) 8.4 eV

Question 5

A solid sphere rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The ratio of translational to total kinetic energy is:

(A) 5/7 (B) 2/7 (C) 7/5 (D) 5/2

Question 6

The magnetic field at the center of a circular coil of radius R carrying current I is B. If the radius is halved and current is doubled, the magnetic field becomes:

(A) 2B (B) 4B (C) 8B (D) 16B

Section II: Multiple Correct Answers (6 Questions � 4 = 24 Marks)

Question 7

For a simple harmonic oscillator:

(A) The acceleration is always directed towards the mean position (B) The velocity is maximum at the extreme positions (C) The total mechanical energy remains constant (D) The period is independent of amplitude

Question 8

In photoelectric effect:

(A) The photocurrent is proportional to the intensity of incident light (B) The stopping potential depends on the frequency of incident light (C) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the work function (D) The number of photoelectrons emitted depends on the frequency of light

Question 9

For an ideal gas undergoing different processes:

(A) In isothermal process, �U = 0 (B) In adiabatic process, �Q = 0 (C) In isochoric process, W = 0 (D) In isobaric process, �Q = �U + W

Question 10

Regarding electromagnetic waves:

(A) They can travel through vacuum (B) They carry momentum (C) They can be polarized (D) Their speed depends on the medium

Question 11

In nuclear physics:

(A) Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for Fe-56 (B) Nuclear force is charge independent (C) � decay involves weak interaction (D) � particles have high ionizing power

Question 12

For semiconductors:

(A) Conductivity increases with temperature (B) Doping increases conductivity (C) Electrons are majority carriers in n-type semiconductors (D) Holes are positive charge carriers

Section III: Integer Type (6 Questions � 3 = 18 Marks)

Question 13

A ball is dropped from height 20 m and bounces to height 5 m. The coefficient of restitution is (answer up to 2 decimal places).

Question 14

The wavelength of light with frequency 6 � 10�t Hz is ____ � 10{w m (given c = 3 � 10x m/s).

Question 15

A capacitor of capacitance 10 �F is charged to 100 V. The energy stored is ____ J.

Question 16

The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days. The fraction remaining after 30 days is ____/8.

Question 17

A resistor of 10 � carries a current of 2 A. The power dissipated is ____ W.

Question 18

The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. An object placed 30 cm from it forms an image at distance ____ cm.

>� Paper 1: Chemistry (30 Questions � 3.2 Marks = 96 Marks)

Section I: Single Correct Answer (6 Questions � 3 = 18 Marks)

Question 19

The IUPAC name of CH�-CH(CH�)-CH�-CH� is:

(A) 2-methylbutane (B) 3-methylbutane (C) 2-methylpentane (D) iso-pentane

Question 20

The pH of 0.01 M HCl solution is:

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Question 21

Which element shows the highest oxidation state?

(A) Mn (B) Fe (C) Cu (D) Zn

Question 22

The hybridization of carbon in ethyne is:

(A) sp� (B) sp� (C) sp (D) sp�d

Question 23

The standard electrode potential of Zn�z/Zn is -0.76 V. When connected to SHE, the cell potential is:

(A) -0.76 V (B) +0.76 V (C) 0.00 V (D) +1.36 V

Question 24

The coordination number of [Co(NH�)�]Cl� is:

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12

Section II: Multiple Correct Answers (6 Questions � 4 = 24 Marks)

Question 25

For organic reaction mechanisms:

(A) SN1 reactions proceed through carbocation intermediate (B) SN2 reactions show inversion of configuration (C) E1 reactions involve carbocation formation (D) E2 reactions require strong base

Question 26

Regarding chemical equilibrium:

(A) Kp = Kc(RT)�n (B) Catalyst affects the rate but not equilibrium position (C) Temperature change affects equilibrium constant (D) Pressure change affects equilibrium only if �n ` 0

Question 27

In electrochemistry:

(A) EMF of cell depends on concentrations (B) Salt bridge maintains electrical neutrality (C) Standard hydrogen electrode has potential 0.00 V (D) Cell potential is positive for spontaneous reactions

Question 28

For coordination compounds:

(A) Crystal field splitting depends on geometry (B) Strong field ligands cause large splitting (C) d-d transitions are Laporte forbidden (D) Tetrahedral complexes have smaller splitting than octahedral

Question 29

In thermodynamics:

(A) �G = �H - T�S (B) Spontaneous reactions have �G < 0 (C) Endothermic reactions can be spontaneous (D) Entropy of universe increases for spontaneous processes

Question 30

For biomolecules:

(A) DNA has double helical structure (B) Proteins are made of amino acids (C) Enzymes are biological catalysts (D) Glucose is a monosaccharide

Section III: Integer Type (6 Questions � 3 = 18 Marks)

Question 31

The molecular weight of glucose (C�H��O�) is ____.

Question 32

The number of � bonds in benzene is ____.

Question 33

The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO� is ____.

Question 34

The molarity of solution containing 5.85 g NaCl in 500 mL is ____ (Molar mass NaCl = 58.5 g/mol).

Question 35

The number of unpaired electrons in Cr�z (Cr = [Ar]3du4s�) is ____.

Question 36

The pH of 0.001 M NaOH solution is ____.

=� Paper 1: Mathematics (30 Questions � 3.2 Marks = 96 Marks)

Section I: Single Correct Answer (6 Questions � 3 = 18 Marks)

Question 37

If (1 + x) = C� + C�x + C�x� + … + C�x, then C� + C� + C� + … + C� equals:

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) n (D) 1

Question 38

The derivative of sin(x�) with respect to x is:

(A) 2x cos(x�) (B) 2x cos(x) (C) cos(x�) (D) cos(x)

Question 39

The distance between points (1,2) and (4,6) is:

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

Question 40

The value of sin(�/6) + cos(�/3) equals:

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3/2 (D) 1/2

Question 41

The angle between vectors a = i + j and b = i - j is:

(A) 0� (B) 45� (C) 60� (D) 90�

Question 42

A die is thrown once. The probability of getting a prime number is:

(A) 1/6 (B) 1/3 (C) 1/2 (D) 2/3

Section II: Multiple Correct Answers (6 Questions � 4 = 24 Marks)

Question 43

For a quadratic equation ax� + bx + c = 0:

(A) Sum of roots = -b/a (B) Product of roots = c/a (C) Discriminant = b� - 4ac (D) Roots are real if discriminant > 0

Question 44

In trigonometry:

(A) sin�� + cos�� = 1 (B) tan� = sin�/cos� (C) sin(2�) = 2sin�cos� (D) cos(2�) = cos�� - sin��

Question 45

For matrices:

(A) (AB)T = BTAT (B) (A + B)T = AT + BT (C) (AB){� = B{�A{� (D) det(AB) = det(A)det(B)

Question 46

In probability:

(A) P(A * B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A ) B) (B) P(A|B) = P(A ) B)/P(B) (C) For independent events, P(A ) B) = P(A)P(B) (D) P(A’) = 1 - P(A)

Question 47

For functions:

(A) f(g(x)) is composition of functions (B) f{�(f(x)) = x if f is invertible (C) Even functions satisfy f(-x) = f(x) (D) Odd functions satisfy f(-x) = -f(x)

Question 48

In calculus:

(A) d/dx(x) = nx{� (B) +x dx = xz�/(n+1) + C (C) +udv = uv - +vdu (D) d/dx(sin x) = cos x

Section III: Integer Type (6 Questions � 3 = 18 Marks)

Question 49

The value of 2� + 3� is ____.

Question 50

The sum of first 10 natural numbers is ____.

Question 51

If log�(8) = ____, fill the blank.

Question 52

The value of sin(�/2) is ____.

Question 53

The area of a circle with radius 7 cm is ____� cm�.

Question 54

If tan � = 3/4, then sin � = ____/5.

=� Paper 2: Structure and Instructions

Paper 2 Different Sections

• Section I: Multiple Correct Answers (6 questions)
• Section II: Numerical Answer Type (6 questions)
• Section III: Matching Type (3 questions)
• Section IV: Integer Type (3 questions)

=� Answer Key and Solutions

Physics Answers

Section I:

1. (A) k�t�/r
2. (A) RT ln 2
3. (A) E/8
4. (A) 2.0 eV
5. (A) 5/7
6. (C) 8B

Section II: 7. (A), (C), (D) 8. (A), (B), (C) 9. (A), (B), (C), (D) 10. (A), (B), (C), (D) 11. (A), (B), (C), (D) 12. (A), (B), (C), (D)

Section III: 13. 0.50 14. 5.00 15. 0.05 16. 1 17. 40 18. 60

Chemistry Answers

Section I: 19. (A) 2-methylbutane 20. (B) 2 21. (A) Mn 22. (C) sp 23. (B) +0.76 V 24. (B) 6

Section II: 25. (A), (B), (C), (D) 26. (A), (B), (C), (D) 27. (A), (B), (C), (D) 28. (A), (B), (C), (D) 29. (A), (B), (C), (D) 30. (A), (B), (C), (D)

Section III: 31. 180 32. 3 33. 7 34. 0.2 35. 3 36. 11

Mathematics Answers

Section I: 37. (A) 2 38. (A) 2x cos(x�) 39. (C) 5 40. (A) 1 41. (D) 90� 42. (C) 1/2

Section II: 43. (A), (B), (C), (D) 44. (A), (B), (C), (D) 45. (A), (B), (C), (D) 46. (A), (B), (C), (D) 47. (A), (B), (C), (D) 48. (A), (B), (C), (D)

Section III: 49. 17 50. 55 51. 3 52. 1 53. 49 54. 3

=� Performance Analysis

Section-wise Difficulty

Topic-wise Distribution

Physics Topics

• Mechanics (8 questions)
• Electromagnetism (7 questions)
• Modern Physics (6 questions)
• Thermodynamics (5 questions)
• Optics (4 questions)

Chemistry Topics

• Organic Chemistry (10 questions)
• Physical Chemistry (10 questions)
• Inorganic Chemistry (10 questions)

Mathematics Topics

• Algebra (8 questions)
• Calculus (7 questions)
• Coordinate Geometry (6 questions)
• Trigonometry (5 questions)
• Probability (4 questions)

Score Interpretation

<� Strategic Analysis

Time Management Strategy

Optimal Time Distribution

• Physics: 55-65 minutes
• Chemistry: 50-60 minutes
• Mathematics: 60-70 minutes
• Review: 5-10 minutes

Question Attempt Strategy

1. First Pass: Attempt all easy questions (15-20 minutes)
2. Second Pass: Attempt medium questions (30-35 minutes)
3. Third Pass: Attempt difficult questions (15-20 minutes)
4. Review: Check marked questions (5-10 minutes)

Accuracy vs Speed Trade-off

= Detailed Solutions for Key Questions

Physics Question 1: Radial Acceleration

Solution: For circular motion with variable speed v = kt:

• Tangential acceleration: at = dv/dt = k
• Radial acceleration: ar = v�/r = (kt)�/r = k�t�/r

Key Concept: Understanding vector components in circular motion

Chemistry Question 20: pH Calculation

Solution: pH = -log[Hz] For 0.01 M HCl: [Hz] = 0.01 M = 10{� M pH = -log(10{�) = 2

Key Concept: Strong acid dissociation and pH calculation

Mathematics Question 37: Binomial Expansion

Solution: (1 + x) = � C�xO Sum of coefficients: � C� = (1 + 1) = 2

Key Concept: Substituting x = 1 in binomial expansion

=� Preparation Recommendations

For Scores < 200

1. NCERT Foundation: Complete NCERT thoroughly
2. Basic Concepts: Strengthen fundamentals
3. Previous Years: Solve last 10 years papers
4. Mock Tests: Take weekly practice tests
5. Weak Areas: Focus on identified weak topics

For Scores 200-280

1. Advanced Problems: Practice JEE Advanced level questions
2. Time Management: Improve solving speed
3. Accuracy Focus: Reduce calculation errors
4. Concept Integration: Study multi-concept problems
5. Regular Testing: Take biweekly full tests

For Scores > 280

1. Perfection: Aim for 100% accuracy
2. Advanced Topics: Cover research-level problems
3. Speed Optimization: Reduce time per question
4. Pattern Recognition: Quickly identify question types
5. Competitive Practice: Attempt national-level tests

<� Success Tips

Exam Day Strategy

1. Sleep Well: 7-8 hours sleep before exam
2. Light Breakfast: Avoid heavy food
3. Reach Early: Avoid last-minute stress
4. Stay Calm: Maintain composure
5. Time Watch: Monitor time regularly

Mental Preparation

1. Positive Mindset: Believe in your preparation
2. Stress Management: Practice relaxation techniques
3. Confidence: Trust your problem-solving abilities
4. Focus: Concentrate on one question at a time
5. Resilience: Don’t let difficult questions affect you

= Additional Resources

Study Materials

• Complete NCERT Solutions
• Previous Year Questions
• Advanced Problem Sets
• Concept Videos

Practice Resources

• Subject-wise Tests
• Full Mock Tests
• Performance Analytics
• Doubt Clearing

Complete this comprehensive mock test to assess your JEE Advanced preparation! >=�

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