NEET Full Syllabus Mock Test 1 - Complete Assessment

<� Test Information

• Test Type: Full Syllabus Mock Test (NEET 2024 Pattern)
• Subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany + Zoology)
• Total Questions: 180 Questions
• Total Marks: 720 Marks
• Duration: 3 Hours 20 Minutes (200 Minutes)
• Pattern: NEET 2024 Format

Subject-wise Distribution

• Physics: 50 Questions (180 Marks)
• Chemistry: 50 Questions (180 Marks)
• Biology: 90 Questions (360 Marks) [Botany: 45, Zoology: 45]
• Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions (Single Correct Answer)
• Marking Scheme: +4 for correct, -1 for wrong

=� Test Instructions

General Guidelines

1. Timing: 200 minutes total duration
2. Section Sequence: Biology � Chemistry � Physics (recommended)
3. Marking Scheme: +4 marks correct, -1 mark wrong
4. Unattempted: No marks deducted
5. Rough Work: Use provided sheets for calculations

Strategic Approach

1. Biology First: 90 minutes (1 minute per question)
2. Chemistry Second: 50 minutes (1 minute per question)
3. Physics Third: 50 minutes (1 minute per question)
4. Review: 10 minutes for marked questions

>� Biology: Botany (45 Questions � 4 = 180 Marks)

The Living World (2 Questions)

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living organisms? (A) Growth (B) Reproduction (C) Consciousness (D) Crystallization

2. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by: (A) Darwin (B) Linnaeus (C) Whittaker (D) Haeckel

Biological Classification (3 Questions)

3. Which kingdom includes prokaryotic organisms? (A) Protista (B) Fungi (C) Monera (D) Plantae

4. Viruses are: (A) Prokaryotic (B) Eukaryotic (C) Acellular (D) Unicellular

5. The scientific name of mango is: (A) Mangifera indica (B) Mangifera indica L. (C) indica Mangifera (D) indica Mangifera L.

Plant Kingdom (4 Questions)

6. In algae, sexual reproduction is isogamous when: (A) Both gametes are motile (B) Both gametes are non-motile (C) One gamete is motile, other is non-motile (D) Gametes are dissimilar in size

7. Which of the following has haplontic life cycle? (A) Chlamydomonas (B) Fucus (C) Spirogyra (D) Polytrichum

8. The plant group that produces seeds but not fruits is: (A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms

9. In Pinus, male cone bears: (A) Microsporangia on microsporophylls (B) Megasporangia on megasporophylls (C) Both microsporangia and megasporangia (D) Only ovules

Angiosperms (3 Questions)

10. The characteristic feature of dicotyledonous seed is: (A) One cotyledon (B) Parallel venation (C) Tetramerous flowers (D) Reticulate venation

11. The edible part of mango is: (A) Pericarp (B) Endocarp (C) Mesocarp (D) Epidermis

12. Which of the following is a false fruit? (A) Apple (B) Mango (C) Guava (D) Tomato

Cell: The Unit of Life (4 Questions)

13. The resolution limit of light microscope is: (A) 0.1 nm (B) 0.2 �m (C) 2 nm (D) 0.1 mm

14. Which cell organelle is called ‘suicide bag’? (A) Lysosome (B) Peroxisome (C) Vacuole (D) Golgi apparatus

15. The membrane that surrounds the vacuole in plant cells is called: (A) Tonoplast (B) Plasma membrane (C) Nuclear membrane (D) Cell wall

16. Ribosomes are sites of: (A) Protein synthesis (B) Lipid synthesis (C) Carbohydrate synthesis (D) DNA replication

Cell Cycle and Cell Division (4 Questions)

17. The stage during which cell synthesizes DNA is: (A) G� phase (B) G� phase (C) S phase (D) M phase

18. In meiosis, crossing over occurs during: (A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Diplotene

19. The term ‘meiosis’ was coined by: (A) Fleming (B) Farmer and Moore (C) Strasburger (D) Boveri

20. Synaptonemal complex is formed during: (A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene (C) Diplotene (D) Diakinesis

Transport in Plants (3 Questions)

21. The apoplastic movement of water occurs through: (A) Cell walls (B) Cytoplasm (C) Plasma membrane (D) Plasmodesmata

22. Active transport requires: (A) Energy (B) Concentration gradient (C) Both energy and concentration gradient (D) Neither energy nor concentration gradient

23. In root pressure, water moves from: (A) Root hair to xylem (B) Xylem to root hair (C) Cortex to xylem (D) Xylem to cortex

Mineral Nutrition (3 Questions)

24. Essential element required for nitrogen metabolism is: (A) Molybdenum (B) Zinc (C) Copper (D) Manganese

25. Hydroponics is: (A) Growing plants in water (B) Growing plants in soil (C) Growing plants in sand (D) Growing plants in nutrient solution

26. Deficiency of which element causes chlorosis? (A) Nitrogen (B) Iron (C) Phosphorus (D) Potassium

Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (4 Questions)

27. The first CO� acceptor in C� cycle is: (A) PEP (B) RuBP (C) PGA (D) OAA

28. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from: (A) CO� (B) H�O (C) Both CO� and H�O (D) Neither CO� nor H�O

29. The pigment that absorbs maximum light at 700 nm is: (A) Chlorophyll a (B) Chlorophyll b (C) Carotenoids (D) Phycobilins

30. C� pathway is found in: (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Sugarcane (D) Mustard

Respiration in Plants (3 Questions)

31. During aerobic respiration, the net ATP gain per glucose molecule is: (A) 2 (B) 36 (C) 38 (D) 40

32. Fermentation occurs in: (A) Presence of oxygen (B) Absence of oxygen (C) Both presence and absence of oxygen (D) Neither presence nor absence of oxygen

33. The respiratory quotient for carbohydrates is: (A) 0.7 (B) 0.8 (C) 1.0 (D) >1.0

Plant Growth and Development (4 Questions)

34. Plant hormones that inhibit growth are: (A) Auxins (B) Gibberellins (C) Cytokinins (D) Abscisic acid

35. Photoperiodism was discovered by: (A) Darwin (B) Garner and Allard (C) Went (D) Skoog

36. Vernalization means: (A) Effect of light on flowering (B) Effect of temperature on flowering (C) Effect of water on flowering (D) Effect of nutrients on flowering

37. Which plant hormone is used to delay leaf senescence? (A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin (C) Cytokinin (D) Ethylene

Reproduction in Organisms (4 Questions)

38. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs through: (A) Offset (B) Sucker (C) Runner (D) Rhizome

39. The male gametophyte in angiosperms is: (A) Pollen grain (B) Anther (C) Stamen (D) Microsporangium

40. Double fertilization was discovered by: (A) Strasburger (B) Nawaschin (C) Fleming (D) Brown

41. The outermost layer of pollen grain is called: (A) Intine (B) Exine (C) Pollen tube (D) Generative cell

Genetics and Evolution (5 Questions)

42. Law of segregation was proposed by: (A) Morgan (B) Mendel (C) Sturtevant (D) Bridges

43. The genetic disorder caused by chromosomal nondisjunction is: (A) Hemophilia (B) Sickle cell anemia (C) Down syndrome (D) Phenylketonuria

44. The direction of DNA replication is: (A) 5’ � 3’ (B) 3’ � 5’ (C) Both directions (D) No specific direction

45. Natural selection was proposed by: (A) Lamarck (B) Darwin (C) Wallace (D) Huxley

46. The age of fossils is determined by: (A) Carbon dating (B) Stratigraphy (C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B

=> Biology: Zoology (45 Questions � 4 = 180 Marks)

Animal Kingdom (3 Questions)

47. The phylum characterized by pseudocoelom is: (A) Porifera (B) Cnidaria (C) Aschelminthes (D) Annelida

48. Flame cells are found in: (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Nematoda (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda

49. The water vascular system is found in: (A) Echinodermata (B) Mollusca (C) Arthropoda (D) Chordata

Structural Organization in Animals (3 Questions)

50. The type of tissue that lines the inner surface of stomach is: (A) Simple squamous epithelium (B) Simple cuboidal epithelium (B) Simple columnar epithelium (D) Stratified epithelium

51. The glandular epithelium is specialized for: (A) Protection (B) Secretion (C) Absorption (D) Excretion

52. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is: (A) Nephron (B) Neuron (C) Alveolus (D) Sarcomere

Human Physiology (39 Questions)

Digestion and Absorption (4 Questions)

53. The enzyme present in saliva is: (A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin (C) Amylase (D) Lipase

54. Bile is produced by: (A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Gall bladder (D) Stomach

55. The pH of gastric juice is: (A) 1-2 (B) 3-4 (C) 5-6 (D) 7-8

56. The most common mode of nutrition in human beings is: (A) Holozoic (B) Parasitic (C) Saprophytic (D) Symbiotic

Breathing and Exchange of Gases (4 Questions)

57. The volume of air that can be inhaled after normal inspiration is: (A) Tidal volume (B) Inspiratory reserve volume (C) Expiratory reserve volume (D) Vital capacity

58. The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is: (A) 104 mm Hg (B) 95 mm Hg (C) 40 mm Hg (D) 45 mm Hg

59. Carbon dioxide is transported mainly as: (A) Dissolved in plasma (B) Carbamino-haemoglobin (C) Bicarbonate ions (D) Carbamino-proteins

60. The respiratory centre is located in: (A) Cerebrum (B) Cerebellum (C) Medulla oblongata (D) Hypothalamus

Body Fluids and Circulation (4 Questions)

61. The largest blood vessel in human body is: (A) Aorta (B) Pulmonary artery (C) Vena cava (D) Pulmonary vein

62. The pacemaker of heart is: (A) AV node (B) SA node (C) Bundle of His (D) Purkinje fibers

63. Which blood component is responsible for blood clotting? (A) RBCs (B) WBCs (C) Platelets (D) Plasma proteins

64. The double circulation means: (A) Blood passes through heart twice (B) Blood passes through heart twice for each complete circuit (C) Separate pulmonary and systemic circulation (D) Blood circulates in two directions

Excretory Products and Their Elimination (4 Questions)

65. The functional unit of kidney is: (A) Pyramid (B) Nephron (C) Pelvis (D) Cortex

66. The main excretory product in human beings is: (A) Ammonia (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Creatinine

67. Which hormone increases water reabsorption in kidney? (A) Aldosterone (B) ADH (C) PTH (D) Calcitonin

68. The normal glomerular filtration rate is: (A) 100-125 ml/min (B) 200-250 ml/min (C) 50-75 ml/min (D) 150-175 ml/min

Locomotion and Movement (4 Questions)

69. The calcium storage site in muscle fiber is: (A) Sarcoplasm (B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (C) T-tubules (D) Mitochondria

70. The functional unit of muscle contraction is: (A) Myofibril (B) Sarcomere (C) Myofilament (D) Muscle fiber

71. Which type of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs? (A) Skeletal muscle (B) Cardiac muscle (C) Smooth muscle (D) Striated muscle

72. The ‘all or none’ law applies to: (A) Single muscle fiber (B) Whole muscle (C) Skeletal muscle (D) All types of muscle

Neural Control and Coordination (4 Questions)

73. The longest cranial nerve is: (A) Olfactory nerve (B) Optic nerve (C) Vagus nerve (D) Trigeminal nerve

74. The myelin sheath is formed by: (A) Neuron cell body (B) Schwann cells (C) Nodes of Ranvier (D) Synaptic vesicles

75. Which part of brain maintains posture and equilibrium? (A) Cerebrum (B) Cerebellum (C) Medulla (D) Pons

76. The gap between two neurons is called: (A) Synapse (B) Synaptic cleft (C) Axon terminal (D) Dendrite

Chemical Coordination and Integration (4 Questions)

77. The master gland of endocrine system is: (A) Thyroid (B) Adrenal (C) Pituitary (D) Pancreas

78. Which hormone regulates blood glucose level? (A) Insulin and glucagon (B) Thyroxine (C) Adrenaline (D) Growth hormone

79. The gland that secretes calcitonin is: (A) Thyroid (B) Parathyroid (C) Thymus (D) Pineal

80. Which of the following hormones is secreted by adrenal medulla? (A) Aldosterone (B) Cortisol (C) Adrenaline (D) ACTH

Human Reproduction (3 Questions)

81. Spermatogenesis occurs in: (A) Seminiferous tubules (B) Rete testis (C) Epididymis (D) Vas deferens

82. The hormone that maintains pregnancy is: (A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone (C) FSH (D) LH

83. The first movement of fetus is felt around: (A) 8th week (B) 12th week (C) 16th week (D) 20th week

Reproductive Health (3 Questions)

84. The contraceptive method that prevents sexually transmitted diseases is: (A) Oral pills (B) IUD (C) Condom (D) Vasectomy

85. Amniocentesis is a technique used for: (A) Detecting genetic disorders (B) Birth control (C) Artificial insemination (D) IVF

86. The test commonly used for AIDS detection is: (A) ELISA (B) PCR (C) Western blot (D) Both A and C

Evolution (2 Questions)

87. The most recent ancestor of humans was: (A) Homo habilis (B) Homo erectus (C) Homo neanderthalensis (D) Homo sapiens

88. The theory of use and disuse was proposed by: (A) Darwin (B) Lamarck (C) Weismann (D) DeVries

Human Health and Disease (3 Questions)

89. Which disease is caused by virus? (A) Cholera (B) Typhoid (C) Common cold (D) Tuberculosis

90. Active immunity develops due to: (A) Infection (B) Vaccination (C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B

91. The drug used to treat hypertension is: (A) Aspirin (B) Insulin (C) Antihistamines (D) Antihypertensives

� Chemistry (50 Questions � 4 = 200 Marks)

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry (3 Questions)

92. One mole of any substance contains: (A) 6.022 � 10�� atoms (B) 6.022 � 10�� molecules (C) 6.022 � 10�� particles (D) All of the above

93. The number of moles in 22.4 L of CO� at STP is: (A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 22.4

94. Which of the following has maximum number of atoms? (A) 18 g of H�O (B) 18 g of O� (C) 18 g of CO� (D) 18 g of CH�

Structure of Atom (3 Questions)

95. The principal quantum number can have values: (A) 0, 1, 2, 3… (B) 1, 2, 3, 4… (C) -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3… (D) -2, -1, 0, 1, 2…

96. The shape of d-orbital is: (A) Spherical (B) Dumbbell (C) Double dumbbell (D) Complex

97. Which quantum number determines shape of orbital? (A) n (B) l (C) m (D) s

Classification of Elements and Periodicity (3 Questions)

98. The element with electronic configuration [Ar]3du4s� is: (A) Cr (B) Mn (C) Fe (D) Cu

99. Which element has highest electronegativity? (A) F (B) Cl (C) Br (D) I

100. The atomic radius generally: (A) Decreases across a period (B) Increases across a period (C) Remains same across a period (D) Shows no trend

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (4 Questions)

101. Which molecule has linear geometry? (A) CO� (B) H�O (C) NH� (D) CH�

102. The bond angle in H�O molecule is approximately: (A) 104.5� (B) 107� (C) 109.5� (D) 120�

103. Which bond is most polar? (A) C-H (B) O-H (C) N-H (D) F-H

104. The hybridization in methane is: (A) sp (B) sp� (C) sp� (D) sp�d

States of Matter (3 Questions)

105. Absolute zero temperature is: (A) 0�C (B) -273�C (C) -273 K (D) 273 K

106. Which gas law relates pressure and volume? (A) Boyle’s law (B) Charles’s law (C) Gay-Lussac’s law (D) Avogadro’s law

107. The boiling point of water at normal pressure is: (A) 100 K (B) 273 K (C) 373 K (D) 473 K

Thermodynamics (3 Questions)

108. The standard enthalpy of formation of element in its standard state is: (A) Zero (B) Positive (C) Negative (D) Cannot be determined

109. For spontaneous process: (A) �G < 0 (B) �G > 0 (C) �G = 0 (D) �H > 0

110. In isothermal process: (A) �U = 0 (B) �H = 0 (C) �G = 0 (D) �S = 0

Equilibrium (3 Questions)

111. For the reaction N� + 3H� � 2NH�, the expression for Kp is: (A) P(NH�)�/P(N�)P(H�)� (B) P(N�)P(H�)�/P(NH�)� (C) 2P(NH�)/P(N�)P(H�) (D) P(NH�)/3P(H�)

112. If Q > Kc, the reaction: (A) Proceeds forward (B) Proceeds backward (C) Is at equilibrium (D) Cannot be determined

113. The pH of 0.01 M HCl solution is: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Redox Reactions (3 Questions)

114. In the reaction 2Fe + 3Cl� � 2FeCl�, iron is: (A) Oxidized (B) Reduced (C) Neither oxidized nor reduced (D) Both oxidized and reduced

115. The oxidation number of sulfur in H�SO� is: (A) +2 (B) +4 (C) +6 (D) -2

116. Which is a reducing agent? (A) H�O� (B) KMnO� (C) K�Cr�O� (D) H�S

Hydrogen (2 Questions)

117. Which is not an isotope of hydrogen? (A) Protium (B) Deuterium (C) Tritium (D) Hydrogenium

118. Hydrogen bond is strongest in: (A) H�O (B) HF (C) NH� (D) CH�

The s-Block Elements (3 Questions)

119. Which element shows diagonal relationship with lithium? (A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) K

120. The hardness of water is due to presence of: (A) Naz and Kz ions (B) Ca�z and Mg�z ions (C) Cl{ and SO��{ ions (D) Hz and OH{ ions

121. Which compound is used in photography? (A) NaCl (B) KCl (C) AgNO� (D) NaNO�

The p-Block Elements (4 Questions)

122. The element with highest ionization enthalpy: (A) Li (B) Be (C) B (D) C

123. Which is a noble gas? (A) N� (B) O� (C) Ar (D) Cl�

124. The most abundant element in earth’s crust is: (A) O (B) Si (C) Al (D) Fe

125. Which element forms amphoteric oxide? (A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) K

Organic Chemistry: Basic Principles (3 Questions)

126. The IUPAC name of CH�CH�CH�CH� is: (A) Butane (B) Pentane (C) Propane (D) Ethane

127. Which functional group is present in alcohols? (A) -OH (B) -CHO (C) -COOH (D) -NH�

128. The hybridization in ethyne is: (A) sp� (B) sp� (C) sp (D) sp�d

Hydrocarbons (3 Questions)

129. The general formula of alkanes is: (A) C�H�� (B) C�H���� (C) C�H���� (D) C�H����

130. Which compound shows addition reaction? (A) C�H� (B) C�H� (C) C�H� (D) C�H��

131. Benzene shows: (A) Addition reactions (B) Substitution reactions (C) Both addition and substitution (D) Neither addition nor substitution

Environmental Chemistry (2 Questions)

132. Which gas causes ozone depletion? (A) CO� (B) SO� (C) NO� (D) CFC

133. Photochemical smog is caused by: (A) NO� and hydrocarbons (B) CO� (C) SO� (D) CFC

The Solid State (3 Questions)

134. The coordination number of NaCl is: (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

135. Which defect decreases density? (A) Schottky defect (B) Frenkel defect (C) Interstitial defect (D) Vacancy defect

136. Diamond has: (A) BCC structure (B) FCC structure (C) HCP structure (D) Tetrahedral structure

Solutions (2 Questions)

137. Which of the following has maximum boiling point? (A) 0.1 M NaCl (B) 0.1 M glucose (C) 0.1 M urea (D) Pure water

138. The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M glucose solution at 300K is: (A) 2.46 atm (B) 24.6 atm (C) 0.246 atm (D) 246 atm

Electrochemistry (3 Questions)

139. The standard electrode potential of SHE is: (A) 0.00 V (B) 1.00 V (C) -1.00 V (D) 0.76 V

140. In electrolysis of aqueous NaCl, at cathode: (A) H� gas is evolved (B) Na metal is deposited (C) Cl� gas is evolved (D) NaOH is formed

141. Rusting of iron is: (A) Electrolysis (B) Electrolytic corrosion (C) Galvanic corrosion (D) Neither

Chemical Kinetics (2 Questions)

142. For zero order reaction, the rate: (A) Depends on concentration (B) Is independent of concentration (C) Is proportional to square of concentration (D) Is inversely proportional to concentration

143. The half-life of first order reaction is: (A) Directly proportional to initial concentration (B) Inversely proportional to initial concentration (C) Independent of initial concentration (D) Proportional to square of initial concentration

Surface Chemistry (2 Questions)

144. Which is not a colloidal solution? (A) Milk (B) Blood (C) Salt solution (D) Fog

145. The process of settling of colloidal particles is: (A) Coagulation (B) Peptization (C) Electrophoresis (D) Tyndall effect

General Principles and Processes of Isolation (2 Questions)

146. Which metal is extracted by electrolysis? (A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Al (D) Zn

147. Froth floatation process is used for: (A) Oxide ores (B) Sulfide ores (C) Carbonate ores (D) Halide ores

The p-Block Elements (Class 12) (3 Questions)

148. Which element shows +3 oxidation state commonly? (A) N (B) P (C) As (D) Bi

149. The acidic oxide among following is: (A) Na�O (B) MgO (C) P�O� (D) CaO

150. Which gas is prepared by heating ammonium dichromate? (A) N� (B) O� (C) NH� (D) CO�

The d- and f-Block Elements (2 Questions)

151. The color of [Cu(H�O)�]�z is: (A) Blue (B) Green (C) Red (D) Colorless

152. Which lanthanide shows +4 oxidation state? (A) Ce (B) Nd (C) Gd (D) Lu

Coordination Compounds (2 Questions)

153. The coordination number of [Co(NH�)�]Cl� is: (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12

154. Which is a bidentate ligand? (A) NH� (B) H�O (C) en (D) Cl{

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes (2 Questions)

155. SN2 reaction is favored by: (A) Primary haloalkanes (B) Secondary haloalkanes (C) Tertiary haloalkanes (D) All haloalkanes

156. The IUPAC name of CH�CH�Cl is: (A) Chloromethane (B) Chloroethane (C) 1-Chloroethane (D) Ethyl chloride

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers (2 Questions)

157. Which is the strongest acid? (A) Phenol (B) Ethanol (C) Methanol (D) Water

158. The product of reaction between CH�OH and HCl is: (A) CH�Cl (B) CH�Cl + H�O (C) CH�OCH� (D) CH�OCH� + HCl

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids (2 Questions)

159. Tollen’s reagent is used to test: (A) Aldehyde (B) Ketone (C) Alcohol (D) Ether

160. Which is the strongest acid? (A) Formic acid (B) Acetic acid (C) Propionic acid (D) Butyric acid

Amines (2 Questions)

161. Which is a primary amine? (A) CH�NH� (B) CH�NHCH� (C) (CH�)�N (D) C�H�NH�

162. Aniline reacts with nitrous acid to form: (A) Phenol (B) Anilide (C) Diazonium salt (D) Azo compound

Biomolecules (2 Questions)

163. The sugar present in RNA is: (A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Ribose (D) Deoxyribose

164. Which is a non-essential amino acid? (A) Valine (B) Leucine (C) Glycine (D) Lysine

Polymers (1 Question)

165. Bakelite is a polymer of: (A) Ethene (B) Phenol and formaldehyde (C) Vinyl chloride (D) Isoprene

Chemistry in Everyday Life (1 Question)

166. Which drug is analgesic? (A) Aspirin (B) Penicillin (C) Streptomycin (D) Insulin

� Physics (50 Questions � 4 = 200 Marks)

Physical World and Units (2 Questions)

167. The SI unit of pressure is: (A) Pascal (B) Newton (C) Joule (D) Watt

168. Dimensional formula of force is: (A) [MLT{�] (B) [ML�T{�] (C) [MLT{�] (D) [MLpT{�]

Motion in a Straight Line (3 Questions)

169. A particle moves with uniform acceleration. Its velocity-time graph is: (A) Straight line parallel to time axis (B) Straight line with positive slope (C) Parabola (D) Hyperbola

170. A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity 20 m/s. Maximum height reached is: (A) 20 m (B) 40 m (C) 10 m (D) 5 m

171. The area under velocity-time graph gives: (A) Acceleration (B) Velocity (C) Displacement (D) Force

Motion in a Plane (3 Questions)

172. The horizontal component of velocity remains constant in: (A) Projectile motion (B) Circular motion (C) Random motion (D) Oscillatory motion

173. For uniform circular motion: (A) Speed is constant, velocity changes (B) Velocity is constant, speed changes (C) Both speed and velocity are constant (D) Both speed and velocity change

174. The angular velocity is related to linear velocity by: (A) v = �r (B) v = �/r (C) v = r/� (D) v = ɲr

Laws of Motion (4 Questions)

175. Newton’s first law is also known as: (A) Law of inertia (B) Law of action-reaction (C) Law of gravitation (D) Law of conservation

176. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 2 kg. The acceleration is: (A) 5 m/s� (B) 10 m/s� (C) 20 m/s� (D) 2 m/s�

177. The action-reaction forces act on: (A) Same body (B) Different bodies (C) Both same and different bodies (D) Neither

178. The coefficient of friction has: (A) No units (B) Units of force (C) Units of mass (D) Units of acceleration

Work, Energy and Power (4 Questions)

179. Work done by a force is zero when: (A) Force is zero (B) Displacement is zero (C) Force is perpendicular to displacement (D) All of the above

180. The kinetic energy of a body moving with velocity v is: (A) (1/2)mv� (B) mv� (C) 2mv� (D) mv

181. Power is the: (A) Rate of doing work (B) Capacity to do work (C) Energy stored (D) Force applied

182. The unit of power is: (A) Joule (B) Newton (C) Watt (D) Pascal

System of Particles and Rotational Motion (4 Questions)

183. The center of mass of two equal masses lies: (A) At one of the masses (B) Midway between them (C) Closer to the larger mass (D) Cannot be determined

184. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is: (A) (2/5)MR� (B) (1/2)MR� (C) (2/3)MR� (D) MR�

185. Angular momentum is conserved when: (A) External torque is zero (B) External force is zero (C) Both force and torque are zero (D) Neither is zero

186. The SI unit of angular momentum is: (A) kg m�/s (B) kg m/s (C) kg m�/s� (D) kg/s

Gravitation (3 Questions)

187. The value of G is: (A) 6.67 � 10{�� Nm�/kg� (B) 9.8 m/s� (C) 6.67 � 10{�� Nm/kg� (D) 9.8 N/kg

188. Escape velocity from Earth’s surface is approximately: (A) 5 km/s (B) 11 km/s (C) 20 km/s (D) 30 km/s

189. The orbital velocity of a satellite depends on: (A) Mass of satellite (B) Height of satellite (C) Shape of satellite (D) Material of satellite

Mechanical Properties of Solids (2 Questions)

190. Young’s modulus has units of: (A) Stress (B) Strain (C) Pressure (D) No units

191. Which material has highest Young’s modulus? (A) Rubber (B) Steel (C) Wood (D) Glass

Mechanical Properties of Fluids (3 Questions)

192. Pressure at a point in a fluid is: (A) Same in all directions (B) Different in different directions (C) Maximum in upward direction (D) Maximum in downward direction

193. Bernoulli’s principle is based on conservation of: (A) Mass (B) Energy (C) Momentum (D) Charge

194. The viscosity of liquids: (A) Increases with temperature (B) Decreases with temperature (C) Remains constant with temperature (D) First increases then decreases

Thermal Properties of Matter (3 Questions)

195. The specific heat of water is: (A) 1 cal/g�C (B) 4.2 J/g�C (C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B

196. The latent heat of vaporization of water is: (A) 80 cal/g (B) 540 cal/g (C) 2260 cal/g (D) 330 cal/g

197. Heat transfer by radiation occurs through: (A) Vacuum (B) Medium only (C) Both vacuum and medium (D) Neither

Thermodynamics (3 Questions)

198. In isothermal process, internal energy: (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) First increases then decreases

199. The efficiency of Carnot engine depends on: (A) Working substance (B) Temperature of source and sink (C) Size of engine (D) Speed of engine

200. The second law of thermodynamics states: (A) Energy is conserved (B) Entropy of universe increases (C) Work is required to transfer heat (D) Both B and C

Kinetic Theory (2 Questions)

201. The kinetic energy of ideal gas is due to: (A) Rotational motion (B) Vibrational motion (C) Translational motion (D) All types of motion

202. The pressure exerted by gas is due to: (A) Collisions of molecules with walls (B) Attractive forces between molecules (C) Repulsive forces between molecules (D) Volume of molecules

Oscillations (3 Questions)

203. The time period of simple pendulum depends on: (A) Mass of bob (B) Length of string (C) Amplitude (D) Material of bob

204. For simple harmonic motion, acceleration is: (A) Proportional to displacement (B) Proportional to velocity (C) Inversely proportional to displacement (D) Zero

205. The frequency of oscillation is: (A) 1/T (B) T (C) 2�/T (D) T/2�

Waves (3 Questions)

206. Longitudinal waves can propagate through: (A) Solids only (B) Liquids only (C) Gases only (D) All states

207. The speed of sound in air at 0�C is approximately: (A) 150 m/s (B) 330 m/s (C) 500 m/s (D) 1000 m/s

208. The relation between velocity, frequency and wavelength is: (A) v = f� (B) v = f/� (C) v = �/f (D) f = v�

Electrostatics (4 Questions)

209. Coulomb’s law is similar to: (A) Newton’s law of gravitation (B) Kepler’s laws (C) Ohm’s law (D) Faraday’s law

210. The SI unit of charge is: (A) Ampere (B) Volt (C) Coulomb (D) Ohm

211. Electric field inside a conductor is: (A) Zero (B) Maximum (C) Minimum (D) Cannot be determined

212. The unit of electric field is: (A) N/C (B) V/m (C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B

Current Electricity (4 Questions)

213. Ohm’s law relates: (A) V and I (B) I and R (C) V and R (D) All three

214. The resistivity of a material depends on: (A) Length (B) Area (C) Material (D) Temperature

215. Kirchhoff’s first law is based on conservation of: (A) Charge (B) Energy (C) Momentum (D) Mass

216. The SI unit of resistance is: (A) Ohm (B) Volt (C) Ampere (D) Watt

Moving Charges and Magnetism (3 Questions)

217. The magnetic field at the center of circular coil carrying current I is: (A) ��I/2R (B) ��I/2�R (C) ��I/R (D) ��I/�R

218. The force on a charged particle moving in magnetic field is maximum when angle between v and B is: (A) 0� (B) 45� (C) 90� (D) 180�

219. The SI unit of magnetic field is: (A) Tesla (B) Gauss (C) Weber (D) Maxwell

Magnetism and Matter (2 Questions)

220. The magnetic moment of electron is due to: (A) Orbital motion (B) Spin (C) Both orbital motion and spin (D) Neither

221. Curie temperature is the temperature above which: (A) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic (B) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic (C) Material loses all magnetic properties (D) Material becomes superconducting

Electromagnetic Induction (3 Questions)

222. Faraday’s law gives: (A) Magnitude of induced emf (B) Direction of induced emf (C) Both magnitude and direction (D) Neither

223. Lenz’s law is based on conservation of: (A) Energy (B) Charge (C) Momentum (D) Mass

224. The unit of magnetic flux is: (A) Weber (B) Tesla (C) Henry (D) Ampere

Alternating Current (3 Questions)

225. In pure resistive AC circuit, voltage and current are: (A) In phase (B) 90� out of phase (C) 45� out of phase (D) 180� out of phase

226. The reactance of capacitor: (A) Increases with frequency (B) Decreases with frequency (C) Remains constant (D) First increases then decreases

227. The power factor of pure inductive circuit is: (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.707

Electromagnetic Waves (2 Questions)

228. Electromagnetic waves consist of: (A) Electric field only (B) Magnetic field only (C) Both electric and magnetic fields (D) Neither

229. The speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum is: (A) 3 � 10x m/s (B) 3 � 10v m/s (C) 3 � 10�p m/s (D) 3 � 10t m/s

Ray Optics (4 Questions)

230. The laws of reflection are valid for: (A) Plane mirrors only (B) Curved mirrors only (C) Both plane and curved mirrors (D) Neither

231. The image formed by plane mirror is: (A) Real and inverted (B) Real and erect (C) Virtual and inverted (D) Virtual and erect

232. The power of convex lens is: (A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Cannot be determined

233. The focal length of concave mirror is: (A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Cannot be determined

Wave Optics (2 Questions)

234. Interference occurs due to: (A) Superposition of waves (B) Reflection of waves (C) Refraction of waves (D) Diffraction of waves

235. Young’s double slit experiment demonstrates: (A) Interference (B) Diffraction (C) Polarization (D) Reflection

Dual Nature of Matter (2 Questions)

236. De Broglie wavelength is given by: (A) h/p (B) p/h (C) hp (D) h�/p

237. Photoelectric effect demonstrates: (A) Wave nature of light (B) Particle nature of light (C) Both wave and particle nature (D) Neither

Atoms (2 Questions)

238. According to Bohr’s model, electrons revolve around nucleus in: (A) Circular orbits (B) Elliptical orbits (C) Both circular and elliptical orbits (D) No fixed orbits

239. The energy of electron in ground state of hydrogen is: (A) -13.6 eV (B) +13.6 eV (C) -1.36 eV (D) +1.36 eV

Nuclei (2 Questions)

240. The mass number represents: (A) Number of protons (B) Number of neutrons (C) Sum of protons and neutrons (D) Number of electrons

241. During beta decay: (A) Proton converts to neutron (B) Neutron converts to proton (C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B

Semiconductor Electronics (3 Questions)

242. Intrinsic semiconductors have: (A) Equal number of electrons and holes (B) More electrons than holes (C) More holes than electrons (D) Neither electrons nor holes

243. The depletion layer in p-n junction is: (A) p-type region (B) n-type region (C) Junction region (D) Whole semiconductor

244. In forward bias of p-n junction: (A) p-side is connected to positive terminal (B) n-side is connected to positive terminal (C) Both sides connected to positive terminal (D) Neither side connected

Communication Systems (1 Question)

245. Which is not a component of communication system? (A) Transmitter (B) Receiver (C) Channel (D) Amplifier

=� Answer Key

Biology - Botany

1. (D) Crystallization
2. (B) Linnaeus
3. (C) Monera
4. (C) Acellular
5. (B) Mangifera indica L.
6. (B) Both gametes are non-motile
7. (A) Chlamydomonas
8. (C) Gymnosperms
9. (A) Microsporangia on microsporophylls
10. (D) Reticulate venation
11. (C) Mesocarp
12. (A) Apple
13. (B) 0.2 �m
14. (A) Lysosome
15. (A) Tonoplast
16. (A) Protein synthesis
17. (C) S phase
18. (C) Pachytene
19. (B) Farmer and Moore
20. (A) Zygotene
21. (A) Cell walls
22. (A) Energy
23. (A) Root hair to xylem
24. (A) Molybdenum
25. (D) Growing plants in nutrient solution
26. (B) Iron
27. (B) RuBP
28. (B) H�O
29. (A) Chlorophyll a
30. (C) Sugarcane
31. (C) 38
32. (B) Absence of oxygen
33. (C) 1.0
34. (D) Abscisic acid
35. (B) Garner and Allard
36. (B) Effect of temperature on flowering
37. (C) Cytokinin
38. (B) Sucker
39. (A) Pollen grain
40. (B) Nawaschin
41. (B) Exine
42. (B) Mendel
43. (C) Down syndrome
44. (A) 5’ � 3’
45. (B) Darwin
46. (C) Both A and B

Biology - Zoology

47. (C) Aschelminthes
48. (A) Platyhelminthes
49. (A) Echinodermata
50. (C) Simple columnar epithelium
51. (B) Secretion
52. (B) Neuron
53. (C) Amylase
54. (A) Liver
55. (A) 1-2
56. (A) Holozoic
57. (B) Inspiratory reserve volume
58. (A) 104 mm Hg
59. (C) Bicarbonate ions
60. (C) Medulla oblongata
61. (A) Aorta
62. (B) SA node
63. (C) Platelets
64. (C) Separate pulmonary and systemic circulation
65. (B) Nephron
66. (B) Urea
67. (B) ADH
68. (A) 100-125 ml/min
69. (B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
70. (B) Sarcomere
71. (C) Smooth muscle
72. (A) Single muscle fiber
73. (C) Vagus nerve
74. (B) Schwann cells
75. (B) Cerebellum
76. (B) Synaptic cleft
77. (C) Pituitary
78. (A) Insulin and glucagon
79. (A) Thyroid
80. (C) Adrenaline
81. (A) Seminiferous tubules
82. (B) Progesterone
83. (D) 20th week
84. (C) Condom
85. (A) Detecting genetic disorders
86. (D) Both A and C
87. (D) Homo sapiens
88. (B) Lamarck
89. (C) Common cold
90. (C) Both A and B
91. (D) Antihypertensives

Chemistry

92. (D) All of the above
93. (B) 1.0
94. (D) 18 g of CH�
95. (B) 1, 2, 3, 4…
96. (C) Double dumbbell
97. (B) l
98. (A) Cr
99. (A) F
100. (A) Decreases across a period
101. (A) CO�
102. (A) 104.5�
103. (D) F-H
104. (C) sp�
105. (B) -273�C
106. (A) Boyle’s law
107. (C) 373 K
108. (A) Zero
109. (A) �G < 0
110. (A) �U = 0
111. (A) P(NH�)�/P(N�)P(H�)�
112. (B) Proceeds backward
113. (B) 2
114. (A) Oxidized
115. (C) +6
116. (D) H�S
117. (D) Hydrogenium
118. (B) HF
119. (B) Mg
120. (B) Ca�z and Mg�z ions
121. (C) AgNO�
122. (D) C
123. (C) Ar
124. (A) O
125. (C) Al
126. (A) Butane
127. (A) -OH
128. (C) sp
129. (B) C�H����
130. (B) C�H�
131. (B) Substitution reactions
132. (D) CFC
133. (A) NO� and hydrocarbons
134. (B) 6
135. (B) Frenkel defect
136. (D) Tetrahedral structure
137. (A) 0.1 M NaCl
138. (A) 2.46 atm
139. (A) 0.00 V
140. (A) H� gas is evolved
141. (C) Galvanic corrosion
142. (B) Is independent of concentration
143. (C) Independent of initial concentration
144. (C) Salt solution
145. (A) Coagulation
146. (C) Al
147. (B) Sulfide ores
148. (D) Bi
149. (C) P�O�
150. (A) N�
151. (A) Blue
152. (A) Ce
153. (B) 6
154. (C) en
155. (A) Primary haloalkanes
156. (C) 1-Chloroethane
157. (A) Phenol
158. (B) CH�Cl + H�O
159. (A) Aldehyde
160. (A) Formic acid
161. (A) CH�NH�
162. (C) Diazonium salt
163. (C) Ribose
164. (C) Glycine
165. (B) Phenol and formaldehyde
166. (A) Aspirin

Physics

167. (A) Pascal
168. (A) [MLT{�]
169. (B) Straight line with positive slope
170. (A) 20 m
171. (C) Displacement
172. (A) Projectile motion
173. (A) Speed is constant, velocity changes
174. (A) v = �r
175. (A) Law of inertia
176. (A) 5 m/s�
177. (B) Different bodies
178. (A) No units
179. (D) All of the above
180. (A) (1/2)mv�
181. (A) Rate of doing work
182. (C) Watt
183. (B) Midway between them
184. (A) (2/5)MR�
185. (A) External torque is zero
186. (A) kg m�/s
187. (A) 6.67 � 10{�� Nm�/kg�
188. (B) 11 km/s
189. (B) Height of satellite
190. (C) Pressure
191. (B) Steel
192. (A) Same in all directions
193. (B) Energy
194. (B) Decreases with temperature
195. (C) Both A and B
196. (B) 540 cal/g
197. (A) Vacuum
198. (C) Remains constant
199. (B) Temperature of source and sink
200. (D) Both B and C
201. (C) Translational motion
202. (A) Collisions of molecules with walls
203. (B) Length of string
204. (A) Proportional to displacement
205. (A) 1/T
206. (D) All states
207. (B) 330 m/s
208. (A) v = f�
209. (A) Newton’s law of gravitation
210. (C) Coulomb
211. (A) Zero
212. (C) Both A and B
213. (A) V and I
214. (C) Material
215. (A) Charge
216. (A) Ohm
217. (A) ��I/2R
218. (C) 90�
219. (A) Tesla
220. (C) Both orbital motion and spin
221. (A) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
222. (A) Magnitude of induced emf
223. (A) Energy
224. (A) Weber
225. (A) In phase
226. (B) Decreases with frequency
227. (A) 0
228. (C) Both electric and magnetic fields
229. (A) 3 � 10x m/s
230. (C) Both plane and curved mirrors
231. (D) Virtual and erect
232. (A) Positive
233. (B) Negative
234. (A) Superposition of waves
235. (A) Interference
236. (A) h/p
237. (B) Particle nature of light
238. (A) Circular orbits
239. (A) -13.6 eV
240. (C) Sum of protons and neutrons
241. (C) Both A and B
242. (A) Equal number of electrons and holes
243. (C) Junction region
244. (A) p-side is connected to positive terminal
245. (D) Amplifier

=� Performance Analysis

Section-wise Score Distribution

Difficulty Level Analysis

Time Management Analysis

Expected NEET Rank Based on Score

<� Subject-wise Performance Metrics

Biology Performance Analysis

Botany Topics

Zoology Topics

Chemistry Performance Analysis

Physics Performance Analysis

= Improvement Strategies

For Biology Scores < 120

1. NCERT Focus: Read every line carefully, especially diagrams
2. Diagrams Practice: Draw and label all important diagrams
3. Previous Year Questions: Solve last 15 years NEET biology questions
4. Daily Revision: Revise 2 chapters daily
5. Mock Tests: Take weekly biology-only tests

For Chemistry Scores < 130

1. Organic Chemistry: Focus on reaction mechanisms
2. Physical Chemistry: Master numerical problems
3. Inorganic Chemistry: Memorize periodic trends and compounds
4. Concept Integration: Study connections between chapters
5. Regular Practice: Daily problem-solving sessions

For Physics Scores < 120

1. Concept Clarity: Focus on understanding, not memorization
2. Problem Solving: Practice variety of problems
3. Formula Mastery: Learn all important formulas
4. Numerical Practice: Daily numerical problem solving
5. Previous Years: Analyze last 10 years physics questions

Time Management Improvement

1. Section Priority: Biology � Chemistry � Physics
2. Question Selection: Attempt easy questions first
3. Skip Strategy: Don’t waste time on difficult questions
4. Review Time: Keep 10 minutes for review
5. Practice: Take regular timed tests

=� Recommended Study Resources

Primary Resources

• NCERT Biology (Class 11 & 12)
• NCERT Chemistry (Class 11 & 12)
• NCERT Physics (Class 11 & 12)

Supplementary Resources

• Previous Year Questions
• Chapter-wise Tests
• Video Lectures
• Quick Revision Notes

Practice Resources

• Mock Test Series
• Subject-wise Tests
• Doubt Clearing Sessions
• Performance Analysis

= Next Steps

1. Detailed Analysis: Identify weak areas from this test
2. Targeted Study: Focus 3-4 days on weak topics
3. Regular Testing: Take one mock test weekly
4. Progress Tracking: Monitor improvement over time
5. Final Preparation: Full syllabus revision in last month

=� Support and Guidance

Academic Support

• Expert Faculty: Daily doubt-clearing sessions
• Peer Learning: Study groups and discussion forums
• Performance Counseling: Personalized guidance
• Mentorship: One-on-one sessions with NEET toppers

Technical Support

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