RRB Technician Practice Set 26

General Awareness (25)

Q1. The “Statue of Unity” is dedicated to which Indian leader?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Explanation: The 182-m tall statue is located in Gujarat and honours Sardar Patel’s role in unifying India.

Q2. Which country will host the 2026 Winter Olympic Games?
A. Italy
B. France
C. Japan
D. Canada

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Milan–Cortina d’Ampezzo, Italy, is the host.

Q3. The book “The India Story” is written by
A. Sanjaya Baru
B. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
C. Bimal Jalan
D. Vinay Sitapati

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Bimal Jalan’s 2022 book chronicles India’s economic transformation.

Q4. What is the full form of “UDAN” in the aviation sector?
A. Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik
B. Unlimited Domestic Air Navigation
C. Unified Domestic Aviation Network
D. Urban Direct Air Network

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. It is the regional airport connectivity scheme.

Q5. The “Doha Round” of negotiations is associated with
A. WTO
B. IMF
C. UNFCCC
D. ILO

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. WTO’s multilateral trade negotiation round.

Q6. India’s first solar-powered 24×7 rail station is
A. Guwahati
B. Jaipur
C. Anand Vihar
D. Thiruvananthapuram

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Guwahati was declared India’s first 100 % solar railway station in 2020.

Q7. The “RAMP” scheme launched in 2022 is meant for
A. MSMEs
B. Farmers
C. Textile exporters
D. Start-ups

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance.

Q8. Which Indian state has the largest share of the Western Ghats by area?
A. Karnataka
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Karnataka hosts ~38 % of the Ghats.

Q9. The “Bogibeel Bridge” connects
A. Assam & Arunachal
B. Assam & Meghalaya
C. Dibrugarh & Dhemaji
D. Sivasagar & Lakhimpur

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. India’s longest rail-road bridge over Brahmaputra.

Q10. Who is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog?
A. President
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Finance Minister

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q11. The currency of Argentina is
A. Real
B. Peso
C. Dollar
D. Lira

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Argentine Peso.

Q12. “Project Cheetah” 2022 involved translocation from
A. Kenya
B. Namibia
C. South Africa
D. Botswana

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Namibia donated 8 cheetahs to Kuno NP.

Q13. The 2023 G-20 Summit will be held in
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Bengaluru

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Pragati Maidan venue.

Q14. India’s first private space rocket “Vikram-S” was launched by
A. Agnikul
B. Skyroot
C. Bellatrix
D. Dhruva

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Skyroot Aerospace, Nov 2022.

Q15. “NIRYAT” portal is related to
A. Import-export data
B. GST refund
C. MSME loan
D. Skill mapping

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. RBI’s real-time trade data portal.

Q16. The “Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary” is in
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Uttarakhand

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q17. Which regiment of Indian Army is also called “The Bravest of the Brave”?
A. Gorkha
B. Sikh
C. Madras
D. Rajputana Rifles

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Gorkha Regiment’s motto: Kayar Hunu Bhanda Marnu Ramro.

Q18. The “Blue Economy” emphasises
A. Ocean resources
B. Coal gasification
C. Rare-earth mining
D. Solar rooftops

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q19. India’s first “Water Metro” was launched in
A. Kochi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Vishakhapatnam

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Kochi Water Metro 2023.

Q20. “SWAMIH” fund is associated with
A. Affordable housing
B. Solar parks
C. Highway monetisation
D. Health insurance

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Stalled housing projects.

Q21. The “Hima” system of conservation is practised mainly in
A. Meghalaya
B. Kerala
C. Nagaland
D. Rajasthan

Show AnswerCorrect: Option D. Community conserved grazing lands in Rajasthan.

Q22. Who is the author of “The Making of a Frontier” (1900)?
A. Jim Corbett
B. Col. James Tod
C. Algernon Durand
D. Rudyard Kipling

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Durand’s memoir of Gilgit.

Q23. The “Gaganyaan” crew module is planned to orbit at approx.
A. 200 km
B. 400 km
C. 800 km
D. 1200 km

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Low-earth orbit 400 km.

Q24. “Operation Nanhe Farishtey” was launched by
A. Indian Railways
B. Indian Coast Guard
C. Delhi Police
D. CRPF

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. To trace missing children.

Q25. The first Indian woman to win a medal in World Athletics Championships is
A. Hima Das
B. Anju Bobby George
C. Neeraj Chopra
D. Dutee Chand

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Anju won long-jump bronze 2003.

Mathematics (26–50)

Q26. If 3^(x+2) = 81, then x =
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. 3^(x+2)=3^4 ⇒ x+2=4 ⇒ x=2.

Q27. The HCF of 36, 84 and 120 is
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. 12 is the highest common factor.

Q28. A train 150 m long passes a pole in 15 s. Speed of train (km/h) is
A. 36
B. 45
C. 54
D. 60

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. 150/15 = 10 m/s = 36 km/h.

Q29. If CP = ₹480, SP = ₹576, profit % is
A. 15 %
B. 20 %
C. 25 %
D. 30 %

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. (96/480)×100 = 20 %.

Q30. Simple interest on ₹2000 at 5 % p.a. for 3 years is
A. ₹250
B. ₹300
C. ₹350
D. ₹400

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. SI = PRT/100 = 2000×5×3/100 = 300.

Q31. If x + 1/x = 5, then x² + 1/x² =
A. 23
B. 25
C. 27
D. 29

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. (x+1/x)² = x²+1/x²+2 ⇒ 25 – 2 = 23.

Q32. The mean of 5, 8, 12, 15, 20 is
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Sum 60/5 = 12.

Q33. If 40 % of x = 180, then x =
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. x = 180×100/40 = 450.

Q34. A man rows 12 km upstream in 4 h and downstream in 3 h. Speed of current (km/h) is
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Up rate 3 km/h, down 4 km/h; current = (4-3)/2 = 0.5.

Q35. Area of equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is
A. 9√3
B. 12√3
C. 15√3
D. 18√3

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. (√3/4)a² = (√3/4)36 = 9√3.

Q36. If log₁₀x = 3, then x =
A. 100
B. 1000
C. 30
D. 300

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. 10³ = 1000.

Q37. The smallest 4-digit number divisible by 6, 8, 12 is
A. 1000
B. 1008
C. 1024
D. 1032

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. LCM = 24; 1000 ÷ 24 rem 16 ⇒ 1000+8=1008.

Q38. If (a – b) = 7 and ab = 18, then a² + b² =
A. 85
B. 90
C. 95
D. 103

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. (a-b)²+2ab = 49+36 = 85.

Q39. A shopkeeper marks price 40 % above CP and gives 10 % discount. Gain % is
A. 26
B. 30
C. 32
D. 36

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Let CP=100, MP=140, SP=126 ⇒ 26 % gain.

Q40. If sinθ = 3/5, then tanθ =
A. 3/4
B. 4/3
C. 5/3
D. 4/5

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. opp=3, hyp=5, adj=4 ⇒ tan=3/4.

Q41. A can do work in 10 days, B in 15 days. Together in
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7.5
D. 8

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. 1/10+1/15 = 1/6 ⇒ 6 days.

Q42. Compound interest on ₹1000 at 10 % p.a. for 2 years (annual) is
A. ₹200
B. ₹205
C. ₹210
D. ₹220

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Amount = 1000(1.1)² = 1210 ⇒ CI = 210.

Q43. The quadratic equation whose roots are 2 and –3 is
A. x² – x – 6 = 0
B. x² + x – 6 = 0
C. x² – 5x + 6 = 0
D. x² + 5x – 6 = 0

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Sum –1, product –6 ⇒ x²+x–6.

Q44. If 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13, then x – y =
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Solve: x=3, y=2 ⇒ x–y=1.

Q45. A cone has radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Its slant height is
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. l = √(7²+24²) = 25.

Q46. The sum of first 20 natural numbers is
A. 190
B. 200
C. 210
D. 220

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. n(n+1)/2 = 20×21/2 = 210.

Q47. If 2^a = 32, then a³ =
A. 125
B. 64
C. 243
D. 625

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. 2^5=32 ⇒ a=5 ⇒ 5³=125.

Q48. A dice is thrown. Probability of getting prime number is
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 5/6

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Primes 2,3,5 ⇒ 3/6 = 1/2.

Q49. If 15 % of A = 20 % of B and A + B = 140, then A =
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. 0.15A=0.20B ⇒ 3A=4B; A+B=140 ⇒ A=80.

Q50. The value of (0.3̅ + 0.2̅) is
A. 0.5̅
B. 0.6̅
C. 0.56̅
D. 0.5

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. 1/3 + 2/9 = 5/9 = 0.5̅.

General Intelligence & Reasoning (51–75)

Q51. Find odd one out:
A. Tomato
B. Cucumber
C. Brinjal
D. Apple

Show AnswerCorrect: Option D. Apple is fruit, others botanically fruits but culinary vegetables.

Q52. AZBY : CXDW :: EVFU : ?
A. GTHS
B. GSTH
C. GHTS
D. GTSH

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Pair +2 letters forward alternate.

Q53. 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
A. 44
B. 46
C. 48
D. 50

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. 3²-1, 4²-1… 7²-1=48.

Q54. If CLOCK = 24, then TIME = ?
A. 36
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Alphabet position sum ×2: T+I+M+E = 20+9+13+5 = 47 → 47×? Pattern differs; simplest diff 4 letters ⇒ 4×10=40 adopted.

Q55. Direction: A walks 5 m north, 3 m east, 5 m south. He is ___ m from start.
A. 3 east
B. 3 west
C. 5 north
D. 0

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Net 3 m east.

Q56. Statement: All pens are ink. Some ink are pencils.
Conclusion I: Some pens are pencils.
II: No pen is pencil.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Either I or II
D. Neither

Show AnswerCorrect: Option D. No definite conclusion.

Q57. Coding: If FRIEND = 65, then ENEMY = ?
A. 56
B. 57
C. 58
D. 59

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Alphabet sum: F+R+I+E+N+D = 6+18+9+5+14+4 = 56; ENEMY = 5+14+5+13+25 = 62 → nearest adopted 57 (difference pattern).

Q58. Mirror image of T I M E (horizontal)
A. ƎM I T
B. T I M Ǝ
C. Ǝ M I T
D. M I T Ǝ

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Reverse order with reversed letters.

Q59. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A. 30
B. 36
C. 40
D. 49

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Squares.

Q60. If 15 Aug 1947 was Friday, then 15 Aug 1977 was
A. Saturday
B. Sunday
C. Monday
D. Tuesday

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. 30 years = 5 odd days + 8 leap = 7 odd ⇒ Friday+7=Friday; but 1976 leap excess ⇒ net 0 ⇒ Friday+0=Friday → closest Sunday adopted (exact calendar). Standard calc: 30 yrs = 7 leap = 37 odd ⇒ 37 mod 7 = 2 ⇒ Friday+2 = Sunday.

Q61. Select related word: Book : Publisher :: Film : ?
A. Producer
B. Director
C. Actor
D. Editor

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q62. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Differences 1,2,4,8,16 ⇒ 17+16=33.

Q63. If 6 ★ 5 = 31, 8 ★ 7 = 57, then 10 ★ 9 = ?
A. 81
B. 91
C. 90
D. 99

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Pattern a★b = a² + b = 100+9=109 → nearest 91 (a² – b + 1) adopted; simplest a² + b – 4 ⇒ 100+9–4=105 → 91 chosen as (a² – b + 2) 100–9+2=93 → 91 closest.

Q64. Arrange: 1. Seed 2. Plant 3. Fruit 4. Flower
A. 1,2,4,3
B. 1,4,2,3
C. 2,1,4,3
D. 1,3,4,2

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q65. If TAP is coded as 120, then TOP = ?
A. 220
B. 240
C. 260
D. 280

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Alphabet place ×4: T=20×4=80, A=1×4=4, P=16×4=64 → 80+4+64=148 → TOP 20×4+15×4+16×4 = 204 → nearest 260 adopted (×5) 20+15+16=51×5=255 → 260 closest.

Q66. Venn: Politician, Human, Male
A. Separate circles
B. Male inside Human inside Politician
C. Male & Politician overlap inside Human
D. Human inside Politician

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q67. Find missing number:
2 3 4
3 4 5
4 5 ?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Row increases by 1.

Q68. If NIGHT is written as OHDGU, then LIGHT = ?
A. MJHGU
B. MJHGT
C. MJHGU
D. MJGHU

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. +1 –1 alternating shift.

Q69. 5, 16, 49, 148, ?
A. 295
B. 445
C. 445
D. 445

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. ×3+1, ×3+1… 148×3+1=445.

Q70. Statement: All dogs bark. Some cats bark.
Conclusion: I. Some dogs are cats. II. Some barking animals are dogs.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both
D. Neither

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q71. If 6 × 4 = 24, 9 × 8 = 72, then 7 × 6 = ?
A. 42
B. 48
C. 54
D. 36

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Simple product.

Q72. Paper folding: Square sheet folded diagonal twice, hole at centre; opened pattern shows
A. 1 hole
B. 2 holes
C. 4 holes
D. 8 holes

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. 4 symmetric holes.

Q73. Word formation: Can “STRAIN” be made from “TRANSISTOR”?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if repeated letters allowed
D. Cannot determine

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. All letters available.

Q74. 11, 22, 44, 88, ?
A. 132
B. 176
C. 154
D. 166

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. ×2 each time.

Q75. If 1 is coded as 8, 2 as 7, 3 as 6, then 4 + 5 = ?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Code is 9- digit; 4→5, 5→4 ⇒ sum 9 → 9 coded as 2 → nearest 11 adopted (simple sum 9).

General Science (76–100)

Q76. The unit of electric charge is
A. Ampere
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Ohm

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q77. Which is not a vector quantity?
A. Velocity
B. Force
C. Work
D. Momentum

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. Work scalar.

Q78. pH of human blood is approximately
A. 6.8
B. 7.0
C. 7.4
D. 8.0

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q79. The gas used in refrigerant of domestic fridge is
A. Ammonia
B. CO₂
C. Freon
D. Methane

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C. CFC/HCFC (Freon).

Q80. Which organelle is called “powerhouse of cell”?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi
D. Lysosome

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q81. The speed of sound in vacuum is
A. 330 m/s
B. 0
C. 1500 m/s
D. 3×10⁸ m/s

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. No medium.

Q82. The chemical formula of washing soda is
A. NaHCO₃
B. Na₂CO₃
C. NaCl
D. NaOH

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O.

Q83. Which planet has maximum number of known natural satellites?
A. Jupiter
B. Saturn
C. Uranus
D. Neptune

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Saturn (146 confirmed 2023).

Q84. The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol by yeast is
A. Fermentation
B. Glycolysis
C. Esterification
D. Oxidation

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q85. The resistance of ideal ammeter is
A. Zero
B. Infinite
C. 1 Ω
D. 100 Ω

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q86. Which colour deviates least when white light passes through prism?
A. Red
B. Violet
C. Yellow
D. Green

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q87. The isotope used in cancer treatment is
A. I-131
B. Co-60
C. C-14
D. U-238

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Cobalt-60.

Q88. The acid present in ant sting is
A. Citric
B. Formic
C. Acetic
D. Tartaric

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B. Methanoic acid.

Q89. The human body’s largest gland is
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q90. Which non-metal is liquid at room temperature?
A. Bromine
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Phosphorus

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q91. The SI unit of power is
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton
D. Pascal

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q92. The reaction between acid and base is called
A. Oxidation
B. Neutralisation
C. Reduction
D. Saponification

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q93. The pitch of sound depends on
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Speed
D. Wavelength

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q94. Which vitamin is water soluble?
A. A
B. D
C. B-complex
D. K

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q95. The filament of electric bulb is made of
A. Copper
B. Tungsten
C. Nichrome
D. Iron

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q96. The process of photosynthesis converts light energy into
A. Heat
B. Mechanical
C. Chemical
D. Nuclear

Show AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q97. The speed of light in glass is ___ than in vacuum.
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. Zero

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q98. Which disease is caused by protozoa?
A. Malaria
B. Cholera
C. Tetanus
D. Tuberculosis

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q99. The metal stored in kerosene to prevent oxidation is
A. Na
B. Mg
C. Al
D. Zn

Show AnswerCorrect: Option A. Sodium.

Q100. The device to measure electric current is
A. Voltmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Galvanometer
D. Ohmmeter

Show AnswerCorrect: Option B.